Saturday, November 04, 2006 12:04:10 AM
As to the details, can you clear up a couple of questions. According to your highlighted quote the bondholders can convert their debt into shares as soon as 3 months after the IPO. Is it fair to assume that although the shares have been considered when calculating ownership share, they have not yet actually been issued into the float? Will they therefore have a dilutive effect on the stock when they are issued? My on the fly estimate suggests that there is a possibility of a 25% increase in the OS once the debt has been converted to shares. Do you concur?
On another tack, did DNAG's purchase of their 18% share predate the convertible bond or did it occur after? I assume it predated the bond or the assumption of an 18% share would have been inaccurate.
regards,
frog
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