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Re: CorruptionFighter post# 71374

Tuesday, 11/27/2018 2:47:04 PM

Tuesday, November 27, 2018 2:47:04 PM

Post# of 172433
In my opinion, if there was any legal recourse it would be with the board's circumventing of the shareholders voting rights.

How can the BOD unilaterally determine that the temporary value of 1 preferred stock voting right is the equivalent of 12,000 common shares? Why would that change not require shareholder approval?

Basically from now on, whenever the board wants to do something that shareholders won't approve they will invoke this preferred share value clause and approve whatever they want without ever needing shareholder vote.
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