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Re: Purchaser post# 148533

Saturday, 11/03/2018 4:06:02 AM

Saturday, November 03, 2018 4:06:02 AM

Post# of 163718
Let us put it this way; If a company on the stock-exchange (S) lends money or transfer assets to a private company (T) and agree on that private company to distribute shares (worth 4 times the market cap) instead of repaying its debt - why on earth should it be allowed to surpass the rules of dividends? It doesn't sound right - the distribution is significant to the shareholders of S! It is something different if the shares ended up in S, but when they are distributed to the shareholders (hence leaves the company!) it has to be treated as a dividend.

In my opinion that is, I'm not an expert on dividends, the FINRA-rules or similar

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