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Re: 55cruiser post# 63978

Wednesday, 08/15/2018 10:21:36 AM

Wednesday, August 15, 2018 10:21:36 AM

Post# of 173090
Not sure I follow your logic.

Scenario 1
Let's say I buy in today when current price is .001. with 3 billion available shares (we'll assume no increase in available shares).

Say I buy 30 million shares (1% of available shares) at $30,000.

The company then does a 1/100 reverse split. I now own 30,000 shares (.01%) of available shares at a theoretical value of $1.00 per share.

However the company has 2.7 million in available shares to sell (again). As those shares are sold off, price will drop back down into penny or sub penny prices - let's be generous and say $.10 per share.

The 30 million shares I purchased at $30,000 have now been reduced 30,000 shares worth $.10 each making my investment worth $3,000.

Scenario 2]
I wait until after the reverse split. By 300,000 shares at $.10 per share for $30,000.

Scenario 1 Results - 30,000 share worth $3,000 (and ownership .01% of available shares)
Scenario 2 Results - 300,000 shares worth $30,000 (and .10% ownership of available shares)

You'd be better off waiting until after the R/S and dilution to buy in.
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