Sunday, August 05, 2018 7:43:40 PM
If the buyer's shares were sold to them by a short seller, then it all makes sense. The only question I have is whether or not a brokerage can legally prioritize filling a buy order with short sold shares when there are shares on the ask that are not borrowed at the same offering price.
JJ any idea if a brokerage has free reign to indefinitely fill buy orders with short sold shares, assuming there are an unlimited amount of short sold shares to use to fill those buy orders?
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