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Re: Been_Burned_Before post# 7593

Wednesday, 10/11/2006 11:11:17 AM

Wednesday, October 11, 2006 11:11:17 AM

Post# of 14027
BBB, for crying out loud. You are trying to hard to justify JD's FVF B.S.. Yes, o.k. in a sort of around the world way the "FVF" argument can be supported by Appendix B39 so as long as you want FVF to mean what B39 is stating. So you make up a terminology, and explain to people that it is defined in a a particular paragraph of a FASB statement...nice.

The bottom line, there is no such terminology called "Fair Value Formula". Only the author knows eactly what it entails and what it implies. So why make up a terminology that doesn't exist in the financial valuation vocabularly? I'll tell you why - to impress the layman that the parties involved are following some esoteric financial process when in fact FVF can mean anything. It has a long rope with an opportunity to mean what the author wants it to mean. There is no point of reference It will not standup in the court of law if they get sued IMO.