Monday, January 15, 2018 12:24:38 PM
As of 9/30/17 the company reported having 101,271,675 common shares outstanding.
There was a 1 for 14 split on 12/01/2011.
There was a 1 for 80 split on 2/03/2006.
Here's how I would approach the question....it's different. There are quirks that make any math done on the issue imperfect....for instance I'm ignoring the 2016 reverse/forward split that was designed to eliminate shareholders.
10,000 shares on 2/2/2006 would have been 125 shares on 2/4/2006.
125 shares on 11/30/2011 would then have been ~9 shares on 12/2/2011.
So IF someone held 10,000 shares on 2/2/2006 and didn't execute any other transactions, that person would be holding about 9 shares today.
Doing "the math on the reverse splits" doesn't work because shares have obviously been issued since the day before the initial first split and equally obviously it wouldn't be proper to consider that shares subsequently issued had undergone the reverse split.
Trying to put it more simply, the current outstanding shares didn't come about solely as a result of the reverse splits.
Next time you hear it, maybe you should just ignore it :o)
But can it core A apple?
Yes Ralph, of course it can core A apple.
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