Have you given more thought to how Loan 1 was executed at only 3.5% interest or Loan 2 at 5%? I'm now convinced this is a big problem that is being glossed over. The only explanation I've seen is that collateral shares are being sold but I don't think that theory matches up with the trading we've seen. I also don't think it makes any sense from the lender's point of view.
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