Fannie Mae (FNMA)

[BaGr]

The way I understand it the reason no money was rewarded was it was more likely than not without bailout shareholders would have lost everything so the governments actions didn't cause any actual monetary lass. The same could be argued with fnma except for the sweep. What I don't get is in the AIG case the illegal act had already been committed but with fnma it hasn't yet. So why is someone not using Wheelers ruling that the 79 percent ownership was illegal to stop the government from exercising the warrants?