Fannie Mae-No Politics (FNMA)

[imtheshadow]

So I thought the Delaware case was totally dependent on the interpretation of the provisions requiring dividends to be made "in relation to" other classes - and that a 100% PSPA dividend failed that requirement (though myself and some others wonder why "100% in relation to zero" is not a valid ratio). IF the dividend ratio is the crux of the matter, it does seem odd that the gov't would introduce the death spiral motive. Is the gov't worried that they are on shaky ground regarding the dividend ratio requirement? If not, why in the world would they introduce the death spiral knowing that evidence exists that seems to totally undermine their fraudulent story? Either I'm missing something very obvious (always a strong possibility) or the gov't may believe that they are in a "dammed if they do, dammed if they don't" position. cheers