You're actually making a stronger case that Roche has a plan and cares about the share price:
1) Whatever the number is, he already has majority control & doesn't "need" more shares.
2) If he took payment in shares, he would not be able to default on RVUE, seize the assets, & control the shell?
3) If he took payment in shares at .0026, he could have also taken the "traditional OTC path". Release bogus PR's while dumping millions of shares. At today's PPS, seems like he could have made a lot of money quick?
Thanks!