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Thursday, 02/02/2017 11:41:19 AM

Thursday, February 02, 2017 11:41:19 AM

Post# of 64600
Maybe you all can explain something to me that I don't understand. Why would MJTK convert the notes at a share price of just .0004 rather than something closer to reality? It seems to me that the company would have been better off selling shares into the open market and then paying off the convertible notes from the proceeds, or even just converting the notes at a market price (less discount of course). Dilution would have been far less if they had. What am I missing?

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