Thank you, Tlsmd. But I have another question:
When a company pays its bills with shares, (they are warrants?)are they actually shares at a given pps or options to convert at a later date? If they are actual shares it would seem that they would already have a value and they would affect the O/S at the time they were given, but if they were options to buy at some future date (and some future pps perhaps when the pps was lower) why do they not affect the O/S when they are converted?
As for double posts, don't worry about it. I'd rather read two of yours than most I see.
"Man cannot discover new oceans unless he has the courage to lose sight of the shore." ...Andre Gide