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Re: liftruck post# 18445

Monday, 09/19/2016 6:43:35 PM

Monday, September 19, 2016 6:43:35 PM

Post# of 24533
"But it could mean perhaps there is a violation of the law here."

Actually on second thought...this could be an interesting question. Did the person who originally recorded the call break the law? I don't recall if everyone disclosed which state they were in. And since the recording was likely made by a participant on the call, all of the "one-party" states callers would not have an ability to make a claim. As for the ones in the two party states...who knows. But I also don't recall if anyone said the call was being recorded...perhaps the dog barking got in the way. Of course if they did say that then obviously there would be no basis for a claim.

Then there is the fact that it appears the call recording was distributed or at least a recording was available to access...so it would probably be difficult to make a claim when a number of participants were aware of and actively distributing or providing access to the recording.