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Re: None

Friday, 09/16/2016 9:56:13 AM

Friday, September 16, 2016 9:56:13 AM

Post# of 13881
Someone help me understand this....you have a diluter MM (VNDM) up on top of the ask, so there is dilution which means toxic financing. But the CEO claims he is going to buy shares on the open market out of confidence of the company...etc..etc.. sooooo, you acquire toxic financing, then use said toxic financiers own money to purchase shares from the toxic financers notes they are converting?? Call me crazy but that kinda sounds a little fishy and something I've never heard or seen of in OTC. Again though, I've only been around 1.5 yrs