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Tuesday, July 05, 2016 3:31:32 PM
Let's address my point of how does a company issue shares at .0008 on the back of shareholders. And why the recipients sold right away.
A very very very very very very simple question...
Where is there ANY evidence that a single share was sold by the recipient of those shares?
There is none... zip... nothing... squat...
Why would anyone waste even a second of their life addressing a baseless hypothetical situation?
<crickets>
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