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Re: WeeZuhl post# 200580

Tuesday, 05/17/2016 6:07:59 PM

Tuesday, May 17, 2016 6:07:59 PM

Post# of 401669
Thank you so much for the valuable explanation.

Understand that i am in no way a basher, i own 25k shares $ELTP.

But i cannot get over this question i keep asking myself.

How is a pill classified as an ADF when it can be abused by taking multiple pills at one time to achieve the high?

I know it can't be altered to snort, inject, etc, etc etc.

But wont an abuser just say "ok, i wont activate the antagonist, i will just eat more pills and get high that way"?

Any clarification would be appreciated.
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