Fannie Mae-No Politics (FNMA)

[big-yank]

Doesn't this example with Congress vs. The Fed exonerate the government from claims that it is treating the GSEs differently than anyone else, forming the basis for legal claims against the government? I am not saying that makes anything "right"... just that I find the similarities between how The Fed and the GSEs are dealt with as a potential confirmation that rules imposed on Fannie may be viewed as SSDD compared to other congressional actions taken with others in the financial services sector.