Viratech Corp. (VIRA)

[joakim]

Pleae correct me if I am wrong because I probably will be.. So lets say for a price of .005 x 2,000,000,000 shares comes out to a value of about 100,000,000. Now why would they do a 1000 to 1 reverse split make it only 2,000,000 outstanding shares? I mean.. that is practically nothing 1000:1 reverse split makes no sense to me especially since to bring the value back up to 100,000,000 would mean a 50 dollar share price... Someone help me make some sense.

Thanks in advance