Mymetics Corp (MYMX)

[johnstockmaster]

Harry and corpus I feel you both are right in reading as per your own ways,you see a debt holder always has to secure his investment by some model and that's why the conversion ratio is always given

But my take is completely different in case if trade sale if a company wants to get a higher valuation it will always prefer to settle the debt rather get the debt holder convert it into shares

And the other thing is a clause is always included not to convert,we have seen in many cases the debt holders convert without waiting for management aprovals as they have put such clauses accordingly

But in this case inspire if round enterprises providing further debt in the last two years they have not converted a single share as you can see the outstanding shares remain same for the last two years,further when the debt holder comes to know that the company is going dead and cannot pay back they would be first to convert and that again is not the case,it clearly means that confidential terms might have been set between round enterprises and management to settle the debt by direct payment

Let's hope for the best