For the record, I am on "Team ECIG". Meaning I hold more shares than I should and have never sold.
My point with the infamous email is that figure has been at least in Willis's head for a while, regardless how he came to it. Since it has been from "at least" December '14, I'm not sure how Q1 '15 factors into it? Maybe the "lost sales" from lack of capital theory?
And, I stand by my statement about "pro forma" being whatever you want it to be. Who can answer this accounting riddle:
Register for free to join our community of investors and share your ideas. You will also get access to streaming quotes, interactive charts, trades, portfolio, live options flow and more tools.