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Re: UserAlias1 post# 49708

Thursday, 01/29/2015 10:30:18 AM

Thursday, January 29, 2015 10:30:18 AM

Post# of 98662
User, was this your question, or was it directly from Paul? Somewhat a you are damned if we do and damned if we don't type of question?

1. Increase the common to 1 bil or 1.5 bil and amend the pref to 300 to 1
or 400 to 1 voting
Or
2. Reverse the 700 mil common by 10 to 1 or 50 to 1 to reduce it to 70
mil or 14 mil common shares and if the stock were at .002 before the
reverse it would then be at .02 or .10 per share after.



In common speak, should we continue to increase the shares from this point via debt conversions, or should we R/S to a lower shares total and resume converting from that lower total?

As-per our-disclosures and-interviews as-the CEO of ACGX Steve has never sold a single share of common stock and the purpose of the preferred shares are not to convert and get more common shares but to always have enough votes to avoid losing control until he is ready to. One way to phrase it is a poison pill.

I do have 1 question that I would be very interested in hearing multiple
people¹s opinion on and that is if you had to pick between increasing the
authorized shares of the common shares and the amendment of the voting
rights of the preferred or a reverse stock split which would you prefer?

So for example if a company had 700 mil common shares and 4 mil pref with
200 to 1 voting or 800 mil votes which is better for the shareholders:
1. Increase the common to 1 bil or 1.5 bil and amend the pref to 300 to 1
or 400 to 1 voting
Or
2. Reverse the 700 mil common by 10 to 1 or 50 to 1 to reduce it to 70
mil or 14 mil common shares and if the stock were at .002 before the
reverse it would then be at .02 or .10 per share after.


Let me know your opinion and what others think as well.
Thanks
Paul


"Always look on the bright side of life!"

Eric Idle

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