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Re: rapid_runner post# 3472

Friday, 11/28/2014 12:24:44 PM

Friday, November 28, 2014 12:24:44 PM

Post# of 14647
Ok so everyone thinks I'm wrong - isn't the first time. But I still don't get it. If this was a simple stock split, the split share ownership is contemporaneous with the stock adjustment. But in the case of a dividend, the stock price always adjusts when the shares go ex-dividend to reflect the underlying value that no longer attaches to the purchase of a share. Here, the dividend is worth half the value of the company.

Why wouldn't the shares adjust immediately upon the shares going ex-dividend? So, I repeat my previous question - would you purchase a share of MARA on the 16th for $15/share - and if so, why?

~ yanqui
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