Fannie Mae-No Politics (FNMA)

[Donotunderstand]

Glen

As I understand it an agreement such as the one in question needs to be entered into by two parties

The first agreement met that test - the FHFA and Tresury

If FHFA is under the thumb or Treasury and has no capacity to act independentlty - then it was a ONE party change to a two party agreement

Somehow I do not think that is legal as a one step process

e.g. a bank and I enter into a loan and mortgage agreement. The bank can as one party notify me of an intended change in some provision - including say interest rate. I as an independent actor must agree or there is no change in the agreement

Yes in the above the agreement would end and I would pay off the mortgage by securing a new one (using some 90 day protection clause in standard contracts)

Some might say that here the FHFA/F and F did NOT respond to a unilateral action - but play dead as they had no degrees of freedom of action

best I recall from ONE whole course in business law but that is not a legal action