Anvil, from your post. I have a problem understanding, "However, if you read the case, the SEC clearly states that the attorney opinion was erroneous in the exemption relied upon, thus allowing Gendarme to immediately sell free trading stock. " why would RCCH (and other companines) willingly sell all those discounted shares at .00005 in the 2 billion? I was back then and I remember there were pps in the .0002 and above and even .0001 in huge vol. days after Gendarme dumped them so "if" RCCH wanted to sell billions themselves to get all that money they could have without gendarme, right?
In fact, I remember days or .0002 3,4,5 and all the way up to .07 and down-those would have been better if RCCH "needed" money so bad.
Why do the gendarme thing and in affect ruin your companys ability to trade freely, sell and stock and global locked, it defies logic, doesn't it?
I mean if RCCH wanted to dump shares at .0001 for 5 years and have fluff PRs like so many pinks that would make a lot of money over 5-7 years, rather then global locked for 5 years making zero $ in share trades
Right?
