I'll weigh in. The answer is no. It's not malpractice. The drug is approved for a certain indication. It's not malpractice to use the drugs approved for earlier lines first. How can you possibly think a doctor would be liable for not prescribing this drug off label?
Register for free to join our community of investors and share your ideas. You will also get access to streaming quotes, interactive charts, trades, portfolio, live options flow and more tools.