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Re: None

Friday, 03/31/2006 2:10:20 PM

Friday, March 31, 2006 2:10:20 PM

Post# of 42566
Maybe someone can explain this to me. Obviously there was a trade (no matter how small) at .01 which means there was a buyer and a seller. What I don't understand is how did that happen? When someone puts in a buy order at .01 doesn't that person automatically get the best sell price under .01 that is available. Does this mean there were no sell orders under .01 at that time? Hard to believe!

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