Thursday, July 03, 2014 3:28:58 PM
Is he technically loaning the company money? Did he actually sell the 30million commons he had on the market or just return them to the company in exchange for the shares' buying power?
Looks like he netted himself $40,000ish a year on the interest (payable in cash or shares) and is guaranteed 25% return on the move, but it seems more likely hed take shares instead of the cash, as he could end up with ALOT more than his original 30million if a full conversion is done below the .0174 mark. Even if it went back up to .0174 before the move was made hed get an extra 7million commons....but im drifting into deep speculative waters now. Cuz theoretically he could just do the whole thing over again lol.
I wont assume the worst but Im curious other peoples thoughts. There has to be a few due diligence machines who have looked at this part inside and out.
Thanks again.
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