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Tuesday, June 10, 2014 5:43:29 PM
Which is why it can't be the reason. I wonder if it's possible to change the offering price in a final amendment to a 1-A. I don't see why not, really.
So if instead, Fellner decided to sell at 0.00005 or 0.00001, his buyers would once again make out like bandits. If that's what's going on, they may do even better this time, because a great deal of pressure will be needed to move both bid and ask below 0.0001.
Could that be why no bid was showing at times today?
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