Question for the board out of curiosity:
From the recent 10Q-
"During the three months ended March 31, 2014, the Company had completed sales to Aspire totaling 900,000 shares of common stock generating gross proceeds of approximately $1.6 million"
Doing some math, $1.6 million/ 900,000 shares = $1.78
*This implies Aspire payed an average of 1.78/share between Jan 1 and March 3.
I used the historical prices from Jan 1 and March 3, to find the average lowest price of each trading day to be $1.82
How on earth, when the majority of days in the period it traded > 1.80 on higher volume, and Cellceutix gets to decide WHEN to require a purchase (aka @ what price)- did the company manage to sell shares to Aspire below the average of the lowest possible price in the range... wouldn't the objective be to lock Aspire in at as high a price as possible to prevent them from unloading below that price?
Also, from the recent 10Q-
"From April 1, 2014 to May 8, 2014, the Company has generated additional proceeds of approximately $1,402,000 under the Common Stock Purchase Agreement with Aspire on the sale 900,000 shares of its common stock."
$1,402,000/900,000 shares = $1.56 average price payed by Aspire.
Historical lowest trading price on each day over that period was $1.63...
Is the objective of management to require Aspire to purchase as many shares as possible- at the lowest price possible? Is this to gain eligibility for an uplist?
If not, wouldn't it make sense to require Aspire to purchase at as high of a price as possible to maintain the stock price? This explains a lot as to why everytime the price runs, shares are being unloaded immediately, and then purchased again at below the average lows of the entire period....
Wish I had that deal with mgmt, along with news as catalysts to boot...
Show me how I am mistaken here?
