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Thursday, April 10, 2014 1:31:06 PM
Wasn't there a post on this Board that a normal reverse split would be about 1 for 100 or a 93% dilution of stock ownership, when in reality the adjusted proposed reverse split on the 2010 proxy was only about 29% dilution or about 6 times better deal?
I think the Skipper/Copeland proposed reverse split left about 12% of the company in the hands of shareholders which was about 1/3 of the reverse split on the proxy... Isn't that true?
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