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Monday, 08/21/2017 2:34:04 AM

Monday, August 21, 2017 2:34:04 AM

Post# of 76488
Topic for the board. Friday 8/18/17, there were 16,738,922 shares traded. A year ago this month, there was a 1 for 500 reverse split. If you do the math, for someone to be able to trade 16.7 million shares after a 1 for 500 reverse split, they would had to have owned 8.37 BILLION shares prior to the split. But there weren't anywhere near that many shares outstanding prior to the split, according to the company's fianacials, posted on OTCmarkets.com. Only 689 million. Where did 8.37 BILLION split adjusted shares come from? Perhaps our CEO could tell us.....


P.S.: The Company's financials now say there are 108,251,762 outstanding common shares. After a 1 for 500 reverse split just last August. That would mean there were over 54 BILLION shares outstanding prior to the split, an astronomical number which would contradict the financials, OR....they are coming from somewhere else....


R.L.