Fannie Mae (FNMA)

[RollTide2019]

Just curious, this may have been asked, but I have not heard a judge ask the gov't " If you wanted to own the companies and take all shareholders out of the picture, why did you not just buy all the shares to begin with, instead of leaving them in the market place?" The fact that they left them in the market to be traded indicates to me that they have value and carry rights of ownership. Had the gov't just did that there would not be this argument, am I thinking about this right?