Fannie Mae Preferred S (FNMAS)

[stockanalyze]

the reason i came up with 1:1 was that government would pay $25 for each common share and fannie turns it around to pay the senior pfds. so fannie would have paid the pfds shares with minimal dilution, you see?. if they converted at less than $25, fannie may not be well capitalized, as they think. now the question is what happens to all the money already has been repaid as exorbitant dividend? well that will be returned once court rules, would happen once election is over as they will delay, delay and the common stock skyrockets .bizarre, lalaland, huh? we shall see


it's an accounting game, simply, as you know. govt is on the drivers seat. that is the best they can screw us up by 1:1 conversion. what do you think will happen in a recap scenario? if not recap, do you think they will just release and reinstate dividends for pfds?