Monday, September 01, 2014 5:13:54 PM
I understand. But you suggested it only occured when he issued himself the Preferred "E" shares and that gave him voting rights FOREVER. If the Preferred "A" shares are legit, and you suggest they are, he already held voting rights.
Plus the Preferred "A" Designation you suggest is legit, prohibits the Preferred "E" shares from being issued, right? Isn't that what the 8K you linked said?
So how could there be another hijacking? And wouldn't the prohibition of the Preffered "E" shares be a fourth reason?
Thanks in advance for the clarification.
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