sure why that is a strange question. Either you were on the bid and were't getting filled, so you the decided you wanted those bad enough to pay the seller's ask price ... or you just entered a buy at the ask price, because you wanted to make sure of getting those shares.
The point is, if someone puts a buy in at the highest bid price, and they see a trade at the bid price, they can't just assume that they got filled. In fact, the MMs are under no obligation to give them those shares, and is some cases they want those shares for their own account and buy them out from under the bidder for that very purpose.
The only thing I wanted to know was if the MMs were filling people at the bid. In essence, people wanting to get shares at the bid price are always in competition with the MMs for those very shares ... they're either covering their short position or they're "ACCUMULATING" shares in advance of a turn-around.
The MMs will make their money one way or another, especially when they're dealing in stocks with low volume.
And why do MMs do that, because that's what MMs can do.
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