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Alias Born | 07/29/2009 |
Thursday, April 17, 2014 9:55:42 AM
Why would Scott sell shares via pp throughout his history (before and after) to pay for all the costs associated with moving the company forward(poorly) but when it came to this small debt(10s of thousands if I remember correctly) he gave a mystery person(s) something you are betting is worth tens of millions of dollars minimum and if Web/SOE is correct hundreds of millions?
Why would he give someone that rather than selling shares to pay the debt like he has done with all debts before and after that?
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