Viaspace, Inc. (VSPC)

[hedge_fun]

Couldn't it lead to another impairment charge depending how it played out?

If it's on the books as an asset NOW, and it's deemed to be over~vauled, then they get hit with the charge like they just did. It was over~valued in previous reports, so they got charged.

Right now it's still worth over $5MM, so if they DEBT was forgiven, would it still be seen as a $5MM loss because it came off the asset side?

Wasn't there something in the 10K about the books being an issue (possibly) for some time?

Note ~ I'm not a CPA, just trying to learn.