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BigBake1

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BigBake1

Re: matoutus post# 10973

Thursday, 06/09/2011 9:16:13 PM

Thursday, June 09, 2011 9:16:13 PM

Post# of 223963
No they have not, the statute remains the same as cited in that case as of 2010. See they cited the exact wording and the 2010 still has the same wording unless you can provide a case overturning the appellate court you are simply making things up at this point.
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