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Re: None

Saturday, 08/23/2008 9:06:10 PM

Saturday, August 23, 2008 9:06:10 PM

Post# of 472
How does that math equate? how does the S/A go from 400m to 150m on a 10-1 R/S?

If you have 10k at .38 I would think you'd be left with 1,000 shares with a PPS of 3.80 after the R/S. But the 150m thing still has me puzzled someone explain on a 10-1 why there wouldn't be 40m S/A after split?
Increase the A/S only to do a R/S is not seen as a good thing.

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