Saturday, February 29, 2020 1:04:10 AM
The only possible change could be if you had say 50 shares within a 100:1 split thus forcing the company to cash you out by paying you the value of your 50 shares. Even then your stock value still is the same. How do you “reduce anything you have to nothing in a reverse split”, when logic proves that any split ratio only flips the numbers describing the market value (without actually changing the market value)? Your claim is illogical.
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