Friday, November 16, 2018 4:51:21 PM
How do you get 2:1? I thought the point of 3:1 in the original plan was that it was a premium to then-market prices, giving the pref holders an incentive to actually accept the conversion. What pref holder would take 2:1 now when they can get 5.5:1 (for FNMAS) in the market? Even the low-yields are around 4:1 now.
I don't follow here. Why would settling for less than par mean a higher ratio?
The higher-yielding prefs are by far the most popular among the big-money pref holders. I could definitely see them shorting the common and buying more of those. If this actually is a "someone must know something" moment then the writing appears to be on the wall.
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