Monday, June 19, 2017 9:22:15 PM
Ok.
Here is my issue: since the trial success of failure is not based on a "blended mPFS" or a "blended mOS" ... then how valuable is it to come up with an estimate of these numbers?
Obviously, if blended mPFS were to be 100, and blended mOS was 500 .... then yes ... it would be obvious that the treatment group must be doing very well and it would lead one to believe the trial success was pretty much in the bag.
But at lower estimates of such blended figures ... then doesn't it become relevant what the assumption is for treatment-PFS versus control-PFS? And similarly for treatment-OS versus control-OS?
Am I unrealistic in viewing the issue in the above manner? If someone arrives at an estimate for a blended-PFS and a blended-OS .... wouldn't you think this person might also have some idea about the breakdown between the treatment & control? I am not trying to be difficult here ... I just do not understand why a blended number would be deemed significant ... whereas in my view the treatment versus control estimates is what is significant.
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