It's unlikely he sold any of the recently accumulated common stock. Since he's been buying the price has trended downward. To sell recent accumulation would be doing so at a loss.
I doubt he sold his previously accumulated shares either, as that would mean he replaced them with those he recently purchased at higher prices.
So, with a lack of form 4 stating he sold it looks like he is holding. Given that he signs the agreements, he basically spelled it out.
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